Who should take this exam?
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner is intended for anyone who has basic knowledge of the AWS platform. Before taking this exam, we recommend you have:- Six months of exposure to the AWS Cloud
- Basic understanding of IT services and their uses in the AWS Cloud platform
- Knowledge of core AWS services and use cases, billing and pricing models, security concepts, and how cloud impacts your business
Level: Foundational
Length: 90 minutes to complete the exam
Cost: 100 USD (Practice exam: 20 USD)
Format: 65 questions; either multiple choice or multiple responses
Delivery method: Pearson VUE and PSI; testing center or online proctored exam
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Q1: What advantages does a database administrator obtain by using the Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)?
A. RDS provides 99.99999999999% reliability and durability
B. RDS databases automatically scale based on load
C. RDS enables users to dynamically adjust CPU and RAM resources
D. RDS simplifies relational database administration tasks
D. RDS simplifies relational database administration tasks
Q2: A user is planning to launch three EC2 instances behind a single Elastic Load Balancer. The deployment should be highly available.
A. Launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region.
B. Launch the instances as EC2 Spot Instances in the same AWS Region and the same Availability Zone.
C. Launch the instances in multiple AWS Regions and use Elastic IP addresses.
D. Launch the instances as EC2 Reserved Instances in the same AWS Region but in different Availability Zones.
A. Launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region.
Q3: Which design principles are enabled by the AWS Cloud to improve the operation of workloads? (Select TWO)
A. Minimize platform design
B. Loose coupling
C. Customized hardware
D. Remove single points of failure
E. Minimum viable product
B. Loose coupling
Q4: A customer needs to determine Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) for a workload that requires physical isolation. Which hosting model should be used?
A. Dedicated Hosts
B. Reserved Instances
C. On-Demand Instances
D. Spot Instances
A. Dedicated Hosts
Q5: A large company is interested in avoiding long-term contracts and moving from fixed costs to variable costs. What is the value proposition of AWS for this company?
A. Economies of scale
B. Pay-as-you-go pricing
C. Volume pricing discounts
D. Automated cost optimization
B. Pay-as-you-go pricing
Q6: What is the most cost-effective storage option that provides immediate retrieval of your backups?
A. Instance Store
B. Amazon Glacier
C. Amazon EBS
D. Amazon S3
A. Instance Store
Q7: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using AWS Lambda?
A. AWS Lambda can be called directly from any mobile app.
B. AWS Lambda provides a scalable data warehouse solution.
C. There is no charge when your AWS Lambda code is not running.
D. AWS Lambda runs code without provisioning or managing servers.
C. There is no charge when your AWS Lambda code is not running.
Q8: Why is AWS considered more economical than traditional data centers for handling applications with varying compute workloads?
A. Customers can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.
B. Customers retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.
C. Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on-demand when needed.
D. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) costs are billed on a monthly basis.
B. Customers retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.
Q9: What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?
A. Automatic failover
B. Load balancing
C. Auto Scaling
D. Round robin
A. Automatic failover
Q10: The owner of an E-Commerce application notices that the computing workloads vary heavily from time to time.What makes AWS more economical than traditional data centers for this type of application?
A. AWS allows customers to pay upfront to get bigger discounts.
B. AWS allows customers to launch powerful EC2 instances to handle spikes in load.
C. AWS allows customers to launch and terminate EC2 instances based on demand.
D. AWS allows customers to choose cheaper types of EC2 instances that best fit their needs.
C. AWS allows customers to launch and terminate EC2 instances based on demand.
Q11: There are a lot of advantages in changing your traditional hosting provider to AWS. One of these advantages is the ability to save costs. What does Amazon EC2 provide to save you costs?
A. You have the ability to choose low cost AMI’s to prepare EC2 Instances.
B. You have the ability to automate backups of the EC2 instance, so that you don’t need to worry about the maintenance costs.
C. You have the ability to tag instances which reduces your overall cost.
D. You only pay for what you use.
B. You have the ability to automate backups of the EC2 instance, so that you don’t need to worry about the maintenance costs.
Q12: Sarah has created a web application, placing its underlining infrastructure in the N. Virginia (US-East-1) region. After several months, Sarah notices that much of her website’s traffic is coming from Japan. What can she do to reduce latency for her users in Japan?
A. Recreate the website content
B. Create a CDN using CloudFront, so that content is cached at Edge Locations close to and in Japan
C. Migrate the application to a Japanese hosting service
D. None of these
A. Recreate the website content
Q13: Which of the following can be attached to EC2 Instances to store data?
A. Amazon EBS Snapshots
B. Amazon EBS Volumes
C. Amazon Glacier
D. Amazon SQS
C. Amazon Glacier
Q14. You work for a hospital that needs to store patients’ medical records for a minimum of 10 years.Most of these records will never be accessed but must be made available upon request (within a few hours). What is the most cost-effective storage option?
A. Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)
B. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)
C. Amazon Glacier
D. Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)
B. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)
Q15. Which DynamoDB feature can be used to reduce the latency of requests to a database from milliseconds to microseconds?
A. Memcached.
B. DAX
C. Multi-AZ
D. Read Replica
B. DAX
Q16. Which of the following can be used to control access to your Amazon EC2 instances?
A. None of these
B. EC2 security groups
C. IAM policies
D. DB security groups
D. DB security groups
Q17. Which of the following is NOT a factor when estimating the cost of Amazon CloudFront?
A. The edge location through which your content is serve
B. Data Transfer Out
C. Inbound traffic.
D. The number and type of requests (HTTP or HTTPS) made.
D. The number and type of requests (HTTP or HTTPS) made.
Q18. What do you understand by the term - S3?
A. Service for Simple Storage
B. Simple Store Service
C. Simplified Storage Service
D. Simple Storage Service
D. Simple Storage Service
Q19. A company has a distributed application that periodically processes large volumes of data across multiple Amazon EC2 Instances. The application is designed to recover gracefully from Amazon EC2 instance failures. There is a requirement to accomplish this task in the most cost-effective way. Which one of the following types of instance would be most appropriate choice to use?
A. On-Demand instances
B. Dedicated instances
C. Reserved instances
D. Spot Instances
D. Spot Instances
Q20. Your web application currently faces performance issues and suffers from long delays. Which of the following could help you in this situation?
A. Amazon Aurora
B. AWS Shield
C. AWS X-Ray
D. AWS OpsWorks
C. AWS X-Ray
Q21. You have just set up a brand-new AWS account. You want to keep monthly billing under $100, but you are worried about going over that limit.What can you use in order to be notified when the monthly bill approaches $100?
A. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers a CloudTrail notification to your email address.
B. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.
C. A SNS billing alarm that triggers a CloudWatch notification to your email address.
D. A CloudTrail billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.
B. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.
Q22. What can you do to best make your application on AWS highly available?
A. Deploy to at least two Availability Zones
B. Rewrite the application code to handle all incoming requests
C. Use AWS Direct Connect
D. Use more AWS servers
D. Use more AWS servers
Q23. Which of the following is equivalent to virtual servers hosted in an on-premise location?
A. AWS Regions
B. AWS EC2 Instances
C. AWS IAM
D. AWS Managed Servers
C. AWS IAM
Q24. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an edge location?
A. Used in conjunction with the Cloudfront service
B. Distributes load across multiple resources
C. Caches common responses
D. Distributes content to users
C. Caches common responses
Q25. You are building an online cloud storage platform. You are unsure about the storage capacity requirements. Which AWS storage service would you use?
A. AWS Storage Gateway.
B. Elastic Block Store.
C. Simple Storage Service.
D. AWS Elastic Container Service.
A. AWS Storage Gateway.
Q26. Which of the given options correctly indicates a specific benefit of an Enterprise Support plan?
A. Included Technical Support Manager
B. Included Technical Account Manager
C. Included Cloud Support Associate
D. Included AWS Solutions Architect
B. Included Technical Account Manager
Q27. Sarah has created a web application, placing its underlining infrastructure in the N. Virginia (US-East-1) region. After several months, Sarah notices that much of her website’s traffic is coming from Japan. What can she do to reduce latency for her users in Japan?
A. Recreate the website content
B. Create a CDN using CloudFront, so that content is cached at Edge Locations close to and in Japan
C. Migrate the application to a Japanese hosting service
D. None of these
D. None of these
Q28. Why is AWS considered more economical than traditional data centers for handling applications with varying compute workloads?
A. Customers can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.
B. Customers retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.
C. Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on-demand when needed.
D. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) costs are billed on a monthly basis.
B. Customers retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.
Q29. You are going to create snapshots from EBS volumes in another geographical location using the console. Where would you create the snapshots?
A. In another Region
B. In another Edge location
C. In another Availability Zone
D. In another data center
A. In another Region
Q30. How can an organization track resource inventory and configuration history for the purpose of security and regulatory compliance?
A. Implement Amazon GuardDuty
B. Create an Amazon CloudTrail trail
C. Configure AWS Config with the resource types
D. Run a report with AWS Artifact
C. Configure AWS Config with the resource types
Q31. You have just set up a brand-new AWS account. You want to keep monthly billing under $100, but you are worried about going over that limit. What can you use in order to be notified when the monthly bill approaches $100?
A. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers a CloudTrail notification to your email address.
B. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.
C. A SNS billing alarm that triggers a CloudWatch notification to your email address.
D. A CloudTrail billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.
C. A SNS billing alarm that triggers a CloudWatch notification to your email address.
Q32. Which of the following is a cloud computing deployment model that connects infrastructure and applications between cloud-based resources and existing resources not located in the cloud ?
A. None of these
B. On-premises
C. Hybrid
D. Cloud
B. On-premises
Q33. Your company expects a response time of less than 15 minutes from support interactions about their business-critical systems that are hosted on AWS. Which support plan is best suited to meet this requirement?
A. Developer
B. Business
C. Enterprise
D. Basic
C. Enterprise
Q34. A company has decided to migrate to the AWS Cloud. AWS offers a wide range of services and instance types.They want to reduce costs as much as possible. Which of the following is the main factor to consider when choosing the instance type of services like Amazon RDS and Amazon Redshift?
A. The type of your current on-premise database.
B. Sources of traffic.
C. Your team experience with these services.
D. Workload utilization of CPU & RAM.
B. Sources of traffic.
Q35. You are running a financial services web application on AWS. The application uses a MySQL database to store the data. Which of the following AWS services would improve the performance of your application by allowing you to retrieve information from fast in-memory caches?
A. AWS EFS
B. AWS Neptune
C. DAX
D. AWS ElastiCache
A. AWS EFS
Q36. Your application requirements for CPU and RAM change rapidly these days. Which service can be used to dynamically adjust those resources based on demand?
A. Amazon Elastic Container Service
B. Auto Scaling
C. Amazon Route53
D. ELB
B. Auto Scaling
Q37. An Amazon EC2 instance running the Amazon Linux 2 AMI is billed in what increment?
A. Per second
B. Per hour
C. Per GB
D. Per CPU
B. Per hour
Q39. Which of the following tools can be used to estimate your monthly bill?
A. AWS Advanced Monthly Cost Explorer
B. AWS Monthly Cost Explorer
C. Advanced Monthly Calculator
D. Simple Monthly Calculator
C. Advanced Monthly Calculator
Q40. You have developed a web application that has a “.NET layer” that connects to a MySQL database. Which of the following AWS database deployments would provide automated backups to your application?
A. DynamoDB
B. An EC2 instance with MySQL installed.
C. An EC2 instance with Aurora installed.
D. Aurora
B. An EC2 instance with MySQL installed.
Q41. Which of the following statements best describes the AWS shared controls?
A. Controls which the customer and AWS use to secure the infrastructure
B. Controls which a customer fully inherits from AWS.
C. Controls which apply to both the infrastructure layer and customer layers.
D. Controls which are solely the responsibility of the customer based on the application they are deploying within AWS services.
D. Controls which are solely the responsibility of the customer based on the application they are deploying within AWS services.
Q42. ____________ is the IAM entity associated with an access key ID and secret access key.
A. IAM User
B. IAM Role
C. IAM Group
D. IAM Policy
C. IAM Group
Q43. Which of the following can be used to automate the management of multiple AWS services through scripts?
A. AWS Console
B. AWS CLI
C. AWS Service Catalog
D. AWS OpsWorks
B. AWS CLI
Q44. Let us suppose your web application generates digital policy files for verifying users. Such that once the files are verified, they may not be required in the future unless there are some compliance issues. Which of the following options would you suggest to save them in a cost-effective manner?
A. AWS EBS
B. AWS Glacier
C. AWS RDS
D. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C. AWS RDS
Q45. Where can you find the information about prohibited actions on AWS infrastructure?
A. AWS Inspector
B. AWS Acceptable Use Policy
C. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D. AWS Cloud Compliance
A. AWS Inspector
Q46. Which of the following AWS services help migrate an existing database to AWS?
A. AWS Snowball
B. AWS Lambda
C. AWS Storage Gateway
D. AWS DMS
A. AWS Snowball
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